Bihar Board 12th Biology Objective Answers Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease

Bihar Board 12th Biology Objective Questions and Answers

Bihar Board 12th Biology Objective Answers Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease

Question 1.
Which of the following facrtors affect human health ?
(i) Infections
(ii) Silent mutation
(iii) Life style
(iv) Genetic disorders
(a) (i), (ii)and(iv)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Question 2.
Which one of the following disease is non – communicable ?
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Flu
(c) Cancer
(d) Malaria
Answer:
(c) Cancer

Question 3.
Which of the following pairs contains an infectious and a non-infectious disease respectively ?
(a) Typhoid and AIDS
(b) AIDS and cancer
(c) Pneumonia and malaria
(d) Cancer and malaria
Answer:
(b) AIDS and cancer

Question 4.
Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Trichophyton
(c) Salmonella typhi
(d) Rhinoviruses.
Answer:
(c) Salmonella typhi

Question 5.
Which of the following is the bacterial disease in humans ?
(a) Dysentery
(b) Malaria
(c) Plague
(d) Both (a) & (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) & (c)

Question 6.
Which of the following pathogens causes whooping coough ?
(a) Legionella spp.
(b) Bordetella pertussis
(c) Vibrio cholerae
(d) Burcella melitensis
Answer:
(b) Bordetella pertussis

Question 7.
Which one of the following sets includes bacterial diseases ?
(a) Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
(b) Diptheria, leprosy, plague
(c) Cholera, typhoid, mumps
(d) Malaria, mumps, poliomyelits
Answer:
(b) Diptheria, leprosy, plague

Question 8.
The common cold is caused by
(a) Rhino viruses
(b) Streptococcus pnemoniae
(c) Salmonella typhimurium
(d) Plasmodium vivax.
Answer:
(a) Rhino viruses

Question 9.
Hepatitis B is transmitted through
(a) sneezing
(b) female Anopheles
(c) coughing
(d) blood transfusion.
Answer:
(b) female Anopheles

Question 10.
A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring every three to four days in malarial fever, is
(a) interferon
(b) haemozoin
(c) hirudin
(d) colostrum
Answer:
(b) haemozoin

Question 11.
During the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual reproduction takes place in which of the following hosts ?
(a) Human
(b) Female Anopheles mosquito
(c) Male Anopheles mosquito
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) Female Anopheles mosquito

Question 12.
Amoebic dysentery (amoebiasis) is caused by
(a) Entamoeba histolytica
(b) E. coli
(c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(d) Trichophyton.
Answer:
(a) Entamoeba histolytica

Question 13.
Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured by taking antibiotics ?
(a) Plague
(b) Amoebiasis
(c) Leprosy
(d) Whooping cough
Answer:
(b) Amoebiasis

Question 14.
An intestinal parasite which causes blockage of the intestinal passage and whose eggs are excreted along with the faeces of infected person is ______.
(a) Wuchereria bancrofti
(b) Ascaris
(c) Epidermophyton
(d) Microsporum
Answer:
(b) Ascaris

Question 15.
Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross deformities is caused by
(a) Ascaris
(b) E.coli
(c) Wuchereria
(d) Trichophyton
Answer:
(c) Wuchereria

Question 16.
Which of the following is affected by the infection of Wuchereria bancrofti ?
(a) Lymphatic vessels
(b) Respiratory system
(c) Nervous system
(d) Blood circulation
Answer:
(a) Lymphatic vessels

Question 17.
Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of the female mosquito vector ?
(a) Filariasis
(b) Amoebiasis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Pneumonia
Answer:
(a) Filariasis

Question 18.
Which of the following pairs correctly matches a disease and a pathogen causing it ?
(a) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi
(b) Pneumonia – Haemophilus pneumoniae
(c) Malaria – Ascaris lumbricoides
(d) Ringworm – Entamoeba histolytica
Answer:
(a) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi

Question 19.
The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same kingdom as that of
(a) Taenia, a tapeworm
(b) Ascaris, a roundworm
(c) Rhizopus, a mould
(d) Wuchereria, a filarial worm,
Answer:
(c) Rhizopus, a mould

Question 20.
Appearance of dry, scaly lesions with itching on various parts of the body are the symptoms of _______.
(a) elephantiasis
(b) ringworm
(c) ascariasis
(d) amoebiasis
Answer:
(b) ringworm

Question 21.
Gambusia is a fish which is being introduced into the ponds in order to check the vector-borne diseases such as
(a) dengue
(b) malaria
(c) chikungunya
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.

Question 22.
Which one of the following pairs of diseases is viral as well as transmitted by mosquitoes ?
(a) Encephalitis and sleeping sickness
(b) Yellow fever and sleeping sickness
(c) Elephantiasis and dengue
(d) Yellow fever and dengue
Answer:
(d) Yellow fever and dengue

Question 23.
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Dengue fever – Fiavi-ribo virus
(b) Syphilis – Trichu ris inch jura
(c) Plague – Yersinia pesris
(d) Filariasis – Wuchereria banchrofri
Answer:
(b) Syphilis – Trichu ris inch jura

Question 24.
The term ‘immunity’ refers to
(a) mutalism between host and parasite
(b) ability of the host to fight the disease-causing organism
(c) ability of the parasite to survive within a host
(d) a fatal disease.
Answer:
(b) ability of the host to fight the disease causing organism

Question 25.
A person has developed interferons in his body. He seems to carry an infection of
(a) tetanus
(b) malaria
(c) measles
(d) typhoid
Answer:
(c) measles

Question 26.
The first line of defence in the immune system is provided by
(a) skin and mucous membrane
(b) inflammatory response
(c) the complement system
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) skin and mucous membrane

Question 27.
Primary response produced due to first time encounter with a pathogen is of
(a) high intensity
(b) low intenisty
(c) intermediate intensity
(d) no intensity.
Answer:
(b) low intenisty

Question 28.
Which of the following components does not participate in innate immunity ?
(a) Neutrophils
(b) Macrophages
(c) B-lymphocytes
(d) Natural killer cells
Answer:
(c) B-lymphocytes

Question 29.
Antibodies are secreted by
(a) T-lymphocytes
(b) B-lymphocytes
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) natural killer cell.
Answer:
(b) B-lymphocytes

Question 30.
The antigen binding site of an antibody is present at
(a) the constant region
(b) the C-terminal
(c) the variable region
(d) between constant and variable region.
Answer:
(c) the variable region

Question 31.
Humoral immunity is associated with
(a) T-cells
(b) B-cells
(c) macrophages
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) B-cells

Question 32.
The antibody which can cross placental barrier is.
(a) IgA
(b) JgE
(c) IgM
(d) IgG.
Answer:
(d) IgG.

Question 33.
The most abundant class of immunoglobulins (Igs) in the body is
(a) IgA
(b) IgG
(c) IgE
(d) IgM
Answer:
(b) IgG

Question 34.
A protein or polysaccharide molecule that stimulates antibody formation.
(a) antigen
(b) antibiotics
(c) exotoxin
(d) endotoxins.
Answer:
(a) antigen

Question 35.
Passive immunity can be conferred directly by
(a) vaccines
(b) antitoxins
(c) colostrum
(d) both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) & (c)

Question 36.
Which form of pathogen is used in vaccination ?
(a) Activated and strong pathogenic antigens
(b) Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
(c) Hyperactive and strong pathogen
(d) Preformed antibodies
Answer:
(b) Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens

Question 37.
Injection of antitoxin in tetanus confers which type of immunisation ?
(a) Active immunisation
(b) Passive immunisation
(c) Auto-immunisation
(d) Humoral immunisation
Answer:
(b) Passive immunisation

Question 38.
The term ‘antitoxin’ refers to a preparation containing
(a) B-lymphoctyes and T-lymphocytes
(b) antibodies to the toxin
(c) weakend pathogen
(d) inactivated T-lymphocytes.
Answer:
(b) antibodies to the toxin

Question 39.
The injection given against the snake venom contains
(a) antigenic proteins
(b) preformed antibodies
(c) attenuated pathogen
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(b) preformed antibodies

Question 40.
Vaccine against polio viruses is an example of
(a) auto-immunisation
(b) passive immunisation
(c) active immunisation
(d) simple immunisation
Answer:
(c) active immunisation

Question 41.
Hepatitis B vaccine is produced from
(a) inactivated viruses
(b) yeast
(c) Haemophilus influenzae
(d) Salmonella typhimurium.
Answer:
(b) yeast

Question 42.
Use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have controlled which of the following infectious diseases ?
(a) Polio and tetanus
(b) Diphtheria and pheumonia
(c) Cancer and AIDS
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 43.
The most abundant antibody produced against allergens is
(a) IgE
(b) IgA
(c) IgG
(d) IgM.
Answer:
(a) IgE

Question 44.
Which of the following cells actively participate during allergy ?
(a) B-lymphocytes
(b) Liver cells
(c) Mast cells
(d) Red blood cells
Answer:
(c) Mast cells

Question 45.
The drugs used to quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy are
(a) ati-histamine and adrenaline
(b) histamine and thyroxine
(c) adrenaline and a-interferon
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) ati-histamine and adrenaline

Question 46.
An auto-immune disease is
(a) SCID
(b) rheumatoid arthritis
(c) myasthenia gravis
(d) both (b) and (c).
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c).

Question 47.
Which out of the following groups represent auto-immune disorders ?
(a) SCID and diphtheria
(b) Diabetes mellitus (type 1) and rheumatic fever
(c) AIDS and cholera
(d) Hepatitis and leukaemia
Answer:
(b) Diabetes mellitus (type 1) and rheumatic fever

Question 48.
The primary lymphoid organs are
(a) spleen and thymus
(b) bone marrow and thymus
(c) bone marrow and lymph node
(d) thymus and MALT.
Answer:
(d) thymus and MALT.

Question 49.
The site where lymphocytes interact with antigens and proliferate to become effector cells are
(a) spleen and lymph nodes
(b) bone marrow and thymus
(c) Peyer’s patches and tonsils
(d) both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (c).

Question 50.
Which of these glands is large at the time of birth but in adults, it reduces to a very small size ?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Adrenal
(c) Thymus
(d) Spleen
Answer:
(c) Thymus

Question 51.
MALT is
(a) Muscle Associated Lymphoid Tissues
(b) Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissues
(c) Mucosal and Lymphoid Tissue
(d) Memory Association Lymphoid Tissues.
Answer:
(b) Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissues

Question 52.
The lymphoid tissue, located within the lining of digestive tract is
(a) spleen
(b) Peyer’s pathes
(c) lymph nodes
(d) MALT
Answer:
(d) MALT

Question 53.
The abbreviation AIDS stands for
(a) Acquired immuno disease syndrome
(b) Acquired immuno deficiency syndrome
(c) Acquired immunity determining syndrome
(d) Acquired immunity delay syndrome.
Answer:
(b) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

Question 54.
The genetic material of HIV is
(a) dsDNA
(b) dsRNA
(c) ssDNA
(d) ssRNA
Answer:
(d) ssRNA

Question 55.
The human immunodeficiency virus is
(a) an unenveloped, RNA genome containing retrovirus
(b) an enveloped, RNA genome containing retrovirus
(c) an enveloped, DNA genome containing retrovirus
(d) an enveloped, RNA genome containing reovirus.
Answer:
(b) an enveloped, RNA genome containing retrovirus

Question 56.
Which of the following is not a cause of transmission of HIV?
(a) Multiple sexual partners
(b) Sharing infected needles
(c) Mosquito bite
(d) Transfusion of contaminated blood
Answer:
(c) Mosquito bite

Question 57.
Viral DNA after being converted from viral RNA by X, incorporates into host genome to undergo replication. What is‘X’ ?
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) Restriction endonuclease
(c) RNA polymerase
(d) Revers transcriptase
Answer:
(d) Revers transcriptase

Question 58.
The cells called ‘HIV factory’ is
(a) helper T-cells
(b) macrophages
(c) dendritic cells
(d) WBCs.
Answer:
(b) macrophages

Question 59.
HIV is a retrovirus that attacks
(a) helper T-cells
(b) cytotoxin t-cells
(c) B-cells
(d) neutrophils.
Answer:
(a) helper T-cells

Question 60.
AIDS is characterised by
(a) decrease in the number of killer T-cells
(b) decrease in the number of suppressor T-cells
(c) decrease in the number of helper T-cells
(d) increase in the number of helper T-cells
Answer:
(c) decrease in the number of helper T-cells

Question 61.
AIDS is widely diagnosed by
(a) Widal test
(b) ELISA
(c) PC
(d) Chromatography.
Answer:
(b) ELISA

Question 62.
Which of the following day is celebrated as ‘World AIDS Day’ ?
(a) 31st March
(b) 1st March
(c) Ist December
(d) 31st December
Answer:
(c) Ist December

Question 63.
Cancer cells do not exhibit the property of
(a) generating tumors
(b) metastasis
(c) contact inhibition
(d) less number of mitochondrial^cristae.
Answer:
(c) contact inhibition

Question 64.
A person suffering from leukaemia has
(a) tumors in adipose tissue
(b) increased number of plasma cells
(c) increased number of melanocytes
(d) increased number of WBCs.
Answer:
(d) increased number of WBCs.

Question 65.
A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ‘sarcoma’ if the disorder is in
(a) fibroblasts
(b) circulatory system
(c) immune system
(d) epithelial cells.
Answer:
(a) fibroblasts

Question 66.
A chemical carcinogen present in tobacco smoke is responsible for
(a) skin cancer
(b) pancreatic cancer
(c) stomach cancer
(d) lung cancer.
Answer:
(d) lung cancer.

Question 67.
Major factors that cause cancer are
(a) oncogenes and polymorphonuclear leucocytes
(b) oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes
(c) MHC genes
(d) cellular oncogenes and a-interferons.
Answer:
(b) oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes

Question 68.
Which of the following approaches are used for the treatment of cancer ?
(a) Immunotherapy
(b) Surgery
(c) Radiotherapy & chemotherapy
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 69.
The substance given to cancer patients in order to activate their immune system and destroy the tumour is
(a) histamine
(b) interleukin
(c) a-interferon
(d) morphine.
Answer:
(c) a-interferon

Question 70.
In humans, receptors for opioids are present in
(a) central nervous system
(b) gastrointestinal tract
(c) respiratory tract
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 71.
Heroin is commonly called as
(a) coke
(b) crack
(c) smack
(d) charas.
Answer:
(c) smack

Question 72.
Which compound is formed by acetylation of morphine ?
(a) Heroin
(b) Cocaine
(C) Tobacco.
(d) Marijuana
Answer:
(a) Heroin

Question 73.
Marijuana is extracted from .
(a) dried leaves and flowers of hemp plant .
(b) ergot fungus
(c) roots of hemp plant
(d) cocoa plant.
Answer:
(a) dried leaves and flowers of hemp plant .

Question 74.
Charas and ganja are the drugs which affect
(a) respiratory system
(b) cardiovascular system
(c) digestive system
(d) nervous system.
Answer:
(b) cardiovascular system

Question 75.
Cocaine is obtained from
(a) Erythroxylon coca
(b) Papaver somniferum
(c) Atropa belladona
(d) Dature stramonium
Answer:
(a) Erythroxylon coca

Question 76.
Cocaine is commonly called as
(a) smack
(b) coke
(c) crack
(d) both(b)&(c)
Answer:
(d) both(b)&(c)

Question 77.
_______ is a CNS stimulant as it interferes with the trasport of the neuro-transmitter __________ .
(a) Cocaine, acetylcoline
(b) Barbituarate, glutamate
(c) Cocaine, dopamine
(d) Barbiturate, glycine
Answer:
(c) Cocaine, dopamine

Question 78.
Whihc of the following plants possess hallucinogenic properties ?
(a) Erythroxylon coca
(b) Atropa belladona
(c) Datura stramonium
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 79.
Which drug is being excessively taken by some sports persons nowadays ?
(a) Opioids
(b) Barbiturates
(c) Cannabinoids
(d) Lysergic acid diethly amides (LSD)
Answer:
(c) Cannabinoids

Question 80.
Which drug is used as medicine to help patients cope with depression and insomnia ?
(a) Morphine
(b) Amphetamines
(c) Barbiturate
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 81.
Which one of the following is an opiate narcotic ?
(a) Barbiturates
(b) Morphine
(c) Amphetamines
(d) LSD
Answer:
(b) Morphine

Question 82.
Which one of the following is a mismatched pair of the drug and its effect ?
(a) Amphetamines – CNS stimulants
(b) Lysergic acid Diethlyamide (LSD) – Psychedelic (hallucinogen)
(c) Heroin – Depressant, slows down body functions
(d) Barbiturates – Transquilliser
Answer:
(d) Barbiturates – Transquilliser

Question 83.
The addictive chemical present in tobacco is
(a) caffeine
(b) nicotine
(c) catechol
(d) carbon monoxide.
Answer:
(b) nicotine

Question 84.
Level of which hormones get elevated by the intake of nicotine ?
(a) FSH,LH
(b) Thyroxine, progesterone
(c) Oxytocine, prolactin
(d) Adrenaline, nor-adrenaline
Answer:
(d) Adrenaline, nor-adrenaline

Question 85.
The intravenous drug abusers are more likely to develop
(a) cancer
(b) AIDS
(c) malaria
(d) typhoid.
Answer:
(b) AIDS

Question 86.
The organisms which cause diseases is plants and animals are called
(a) pathogens
(b) vectors
(c) insects
(d) worms.
Answer:
(a) pathogens

Question 87.
The chemical test that is used for diagnosis of tyhpoidis
(a) ELISA-Test
(b) EST-Test
(c) PCR-Test
(d) Widal-Test.
Answer:
(d) Widal-Test.

Question 88.
The sporozoites that cause infection, when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a person are formed in
(a) liver of the person
(b) RBCs of mosquito
(c) salivary glands of mosqiot
(d) intenstine of mosquito.
Answer:
(d) intenstine of mosquito.

Question 89.
The disease chikungunya is transmitted by
(a) house flies
(b) Aedes mosquitoes
(c) cockroach
(d) female Anopheles.
Answer:
(b) Aedes mosquitoes

Question 90.
The genes causing cancer are
(a) structural genes
(b) expressor genes
(c) oncogenes
(d) regulatory genes.
Answer:
(c) oncogenes

Question 91.
AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission of HIV ?
(a) Transfusion of contaminated blood.
(b) Sharing the infected needles.
(c) Shaking hands with infected persons.
(d) Sexual contact with infected persons.
Answer:
(c) Shaking hands with infected persons.

Question 92.
‘Smack’ is a drug obtained from the
(a) latex of Papever somniferum
(b) leaves of Cannabis saliva
(c) flowers of Datura
(d) fruits of Erythroxyl coca.
Answer:
(a) latex of Papever somniferum

Question 93.
The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further infection is
(a) serotonin
(b) colostrum
(c) interferon
(d) histamine.
Answer:
(c) interferon

Question 94.
Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born from certain diseases is of
(a) IgG type
(b) IgA type
(c) IgD type
(d) IgE type.
Answer:
(b) IgA type

Question 95.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. The component causing this could be
(a) nicotine
(b) tannic acid
(c) curaimin
(d) catechin.
Answer:
(a) nicotine

Question 96.
Antivenom against snake poison contains
(a) antigens
(b) antigen-antibody complexes
(c) antibodies
(d) enzymes
Answer:
(c) antibodies

Question 97.
Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue ?
(a) Spleen
(b) Tonsils
(c) Pancreas
(d) Thymus
Answer:
(c) Pancreas

Question 98.
Which of the following glands is large sized at birth but reduces in size with ageing ?
(a) Pineal
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thymus
(d) Thyroid
Answer:
(c) Thymus

Question 99.
Haemozoin is a
(a) precursor of haemoglobin
(b) toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
(c) toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
(d) toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells.
Answer:
(c) toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells

Question 100.
One of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm.
(a) Microsporum
(b) Trichophyton
(c) Epidermophyton
(d) Macrosporum
Answer:
(d) Macrosporum

Question 101.
A person with sickle cell anaemia is
(a) more prone to malaria
(b) more prone to typhoid
(c) less prone to malaria
(d) less prone to typhoid.
Answer:
(c) less prone to malaria